Ms. P.C. is a 19-year-old white female who reports a 2-day history of lower abdominal pain, nausea, emesis, and a heavy, malodorous vaginal discharge. She states that she is single, heterosexual, and that she has been sexually active with only one partner for the past eight months. She has no previous history of genitourinary infections or sexually transmitted diseases. She denies IV drug use. Her LMP ended three days ago. Her last intercourse (vaginal) was eight days ago and she states that they did not use a condom. She admits to unprotected sex “every once in a while.” She noted an abnormal vaginal discharge yesterday and she describes it as “thick, greenish-yellow in color, and very smelly.” She denies both oral and rectal intercourse. She does not know if her partner has had a recent genitourinary tract infection, “because he has been away on business for five days.
Microscopic Examination of Vaginal Discharge
(-) yeast or hyphae
(-) flagellated microbes
(+) white blood cells
(+) gram-negative intracellular diplococci
Case Study 2 Questions:
- According to the case presented, including the clinical manifestations and microscopic examination of the vaginal discharge, what is the most probable diagnosis for Ms. P.C.? Support your answer and explain why you get to that diagnosis.
- Based on the vaginal discharge described and the microscopic examination of the sample, could you suggest which would be the microorganism involved?
- Name the criteria you would use to recommend hospitalization for this patient.
500 words, APA with at least 2 academic sources